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“Every perceptual experience is possible delusory”

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(A) Take the following familiar kind of philosophical claim: Every perceptual experience is possibly delusory! How do you read this? Do you parse it as (Every perceptual experience is such that)(it is possible that) it is delusory or as (It is possible that)(every perceptual experience is such that)(it is possible that) it is delusory? Do you think that one reading is correct (or at least the strongly preferred reading), and the other incorrect (or at least to be deprecated)? Or do you take (1) to be ambiguous between the ∀♢ reading (2) and the ♢∀ reading (3)? Peter Geach in Reference and Generality takes it that (1) is unambiguously to be read as (3), with ‘every’ taking narrow scope. Or to be more accurate he talks — at p. 104 of the third edition —  about the fallacy in ‘the transition from “Any sense perception may be illusory” to “Every sense perception may be illusory”.’ I take it that the slight difference in wording is neither here nor there for the current. . .

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News source: Logic Matters

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